30+ PMP Exam Questions and Answers: Most Asked in 2024

Project Management Professional, or PMP Certification, is a globally recognized standard for potential employers in the Project Management industry. According to Glassdoor, the annual PMP Salary of Project Management certification holders is around £48,295. Every PMP professional has taken many mock or practice tests before appearing for the PMP Certification exam. 

Therefore, we provide the top PMP Exam Questions and answers to help you prepare for the PMP Exam. With the help of these PMP Exam sample questions, you will be able to understand the format of other mock tests and answer other PMP sample questions from mocks. 

Table of Contents 

1) 36 PMP Exam Questions with Answers 

   a) Which statement is true about Project Scope? 

   b) The "halo effect" refers to the propensity to: 

   c) What best describes RACI? 

   d) What are the stages of team development According to the Tuckman Ladder model? 

   e) Which of the following is not an input to the risk management process? 

   f) As part of a successful communication, the receiver is accountable to: 

   g) When creating the timeline and deciding on the deadline, a project manager should: 

   h) What should you evaluate when you find it challenging to evaluate the exact cost impact of a risk? 

   i) During which stage of the risk management process will you decide to transfer a risk? 

   j) The judgmental forecasting methods for future project performance rely on opinions and probable cost and schedule estimates. Which of these is NOT an example of a judgmental method? 

2) Conclusion 

36 PMP Exam Questions with Answers 

1) Which Statement is True About Project Scope? 

a) It is a set of sub-projects having a common goal 

b) It is part of project planning that describes the project requirement 

c) It is a group of projects that have common objectives 

d) None of the above 

Answer: B. It is part of project planning that describes the project requirement 

Explanation: The Project Scope describes the required work to complete the project. It includes determining and documenting project-specific goals, deliverables, tasks, timelines, costs, and deadlines. 

2) The "Halo Effect" Refers to the Propensity to: 

a) Promote from within. 

b) Move individuals into project management because they are good in their technical fields. 

c) Recruit the best. 

d) Move individuals into project management because they have had project management training. 

Answer: B. Move individuals into project management because they are good in their technical fields. 

Explanation: The halo effect is the tendency for positive impressions of an individual, company, brand, or product in one area to positively impact one's opinion or feelings in others. 

3) What Best Describes RACI? 

a) Recommended, Accountable, Consulted, Inform 

b) Responsible, Accountable, Confirm, Inform 

c) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Inform 

d) Responsible, Accountant, Consulted, Inform 

Answer: C. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Inform 

Explanation: RACI is an example of the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM). It displays the connection between the project activities and the team members working on the project. 

4) What are the Stages of Team Development According to the Tuckman Ladder Model? 

a) Forming, rejection, regression, acceptance, retry. 

b) Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning. 

c) Tell, sell, consult, join. 

d) Direct, support, coach, delegate. 

Answer: B. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning. 

Explanation: According to the Tuckman Ladder model, the stages of team development are: 

a) Forming: Team members come together and get acquainted. 

b) Storming: Conflicts and disagreements arise as team members push boundaries. 

c) Norming: The team begins to resolve differences, establish norms, and work together. 

d) Performing: The team works efficiently towards the goal. 

e) Adjourning: The project ends, and the team disbands. 

5) Which of the Following is not an Input to the Risk Management Process?  

a) Historical data 

b) Report on project status 

c) Work breakdown structure  

d) Lessons learned 

Answer: B. Report on project status 

Explanation: Reports on project status are one of the inputs required for the risk management process. However, this may be optional for the first time you perform risk management, as a report on project status will not be available. 

6) As part of a Successful Communication, The Receiver is Accountable To: 

a) Ensure the information is clear, complete, understood, and agreed upon. 

b) Ensure the information is received completely, understood correctly and acknowledged. 

c) Ensure the information is clear and complete, understood and acknowledged.    

d) Listening actively to ensure all the information is received. 

Answer: B. Ensure the information is received completely, understood correctly and acknowledged. 

Explanation: The receiver's role is to interpret the sender's verbal and nonverbal message with as little distortion as possible. The process of analyzing the message is known as decoding. 

7) When Creating The Timeline And Deciding On The Deadline, A Project Manager Should: 

a) Use his best judgement and estimate all activities on his own 

b) Estimate based on the budget and include buffers 

c) Involve team members who will be performing the task of the project to get the estimates 

d) Both a and b 

Answer: C. Involve team members who will be performing the task of the project to get the estimates 

Explanation: A project manager must involve all those working on the project's deliverables when making important decisions about timelines, budgets, and deadlines. 

8) What Should You Evaluate When You Find It Challenging To Evaluate the Exact Cost Impact of a Risk? 

a) Economic basis 

b) Financial basis 

c) Qualitative basis 

d) Quantitative basis 

Answer: C. Qualitative basis 

Explanation: When determining the exact cost impact of a risk in a project is challenging, you should use qualitative estimates such as Low, Medium, and High. 

9) During Which Stage of the Risk Management Process Will You Decide to Transfer A Risk? 

a) Identify Risks 

b) Monitor and control risks 

c) Plan risk response 

d) Perform quantitative risk analysis 

Answer: C. Plan risk response 

Explanation: Transference is considered during the risk response strategy. 

10) The Judgmental Forecasting Methods For Future Project Performance Rely On Opinions And Probable Cost And Schedule Estimates. Which of These is NOT an Example of a Judgmental Method?   

a) Scenario building 

b) Forecast by analogy 

c) Delphi method 

d) Linear regression 

Answer: D. Linear regression 

Explanation: In statistics, linear regression is a method for modelling the relationship between a single output and one or more inputs (also known as dependent and independent variables). It is not based on judgmental methods. 

11)  In the Car Manufacturing Industry, Some Key Resources Have Unique Skills That Allow Them to Support Multiple Activities in Different Projects Simultaneously. Therefore, Project Managers Must Consider Their Productivity When Estimating The Number of Work Periods for An Activity. Sometimes, The Project Manager May Need to Assign Multiple Resources to an Activity to Complete It Quickly. Additionally, The Manager Must Consider That Some Resources Work Only Part-time Daily. Many Factors Like These Need to Be Considered When: 

a) Creating a work breakdown structure. 

b) Creating a project management plan.   

c) Defining the activities. 

d) Estimating activity durations.  

Answer: D. Estimating activity durations. 

Explanation: Estimating Activity Durations involves estimating the time required to complete individual activities with estimated resources. 

12) Due to Funding-related Issues, The Buyer And Seller Have Reached a Collective Agreement And Decided To End The Contract in an IT Project. Ending a Contract With A Collective Agreement is Done During: 

a) The close agreements process. 

b) The control procurements process. 

c) The close project process. 

d) The close contract process. 

Answer: B. The control procurements process. 

Explanation: Control Procurements is the process of monitoring contract performance, managing procurement relationships, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts. 

13) After the Deliverables Are Produced, The Process of Scope Verification Begins. What is The Main Purpose Of Validating Scope? 

a) Deliverables are produced 

b) The client accepts deliverables 

c) Deliverables are tested and checked against the scope 

d) The project scope is prepared 

Answer: B. The client accepts deliverables 

Explanation: After the deliverables are matched with the project scope, the clients formally accept the project scope and deliverables. Therefore, this is the primary purpose behind validating the project scope. 

14) You Are Using Control Charts to do Quality Control. Which of the Following Situations do not Imply That The Process is not in Control And an Assignable Cause Needs to be Assigned? Suppose That The Control Limits Have Been Set to Three Sigma. 

a) One of the points is more than the mean + (3*sigma). 

b) Two points are more than mean +(2*sigma) but less than mean + (3*sigma). 

c) Seven points together are on one side of the mean. 

d) All points are within the control limits. 

Answer: B. Two points are more than mean +(2*sigma) but less than mean + (3*sigma). 

Explanation: Three-sigma limits represent a statistical calculation in which the data falls within three standard deviations from a mean. In business, three-sigma refers to highly efficient processes that produce top-quality items. 

15) Determining risk tolerance will assist the project team in the following ways: 

a) Ranking the project risks 

b) Preparing the project schedule 

c) Estimating the project cost 

d) None of the above 

Answer: A. Ranking the project risks 

Explanation: Knowing stakeholders' tolerance to various risk events helps the team assign risk levels for each project activity. 

16) Which of These is not a Risk Identification tool or technique? 

a) Risk Register 

b) Documentation Reviews 

c) Brainstorming 

d) Interviewing 

Answer: A. Risk Register 

Explanation: The Risk Register is a document used to record identified risks, but it is not a tool or technique for identifying risks. Tools and techniques for risk identification include expert judgment, documentation reviews, brainstorming, and interviewing. 

17) Calculate the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) for a Project When it has a 70% Chance of A $90,000 Profit And a Loss Of 40% Of $90,000. 

a) $27,000 profit 

b) $90,000 profit 

c) $90,000 loss 

d) $37,000 loss 

Answer: A. $27,000 profit 

Explanation: The formula to calculate Expected Monetary Value (EMV) is = Probability X Impact 

You have to calculate the positive and negative values and add the values to find the EMV. I.e. 

0.7 X $90,000 = $63,000 

0.4 X $90,000 = $36,000 

EMV = $63,000 - $36,000 = $27,000 profit 

18) What Percentage (%) of the Distribution is 3 Sigma From The Mean Equal to? 

a) 68.26% 

b) 99.99% 

c) 95.46% 

d) 99.73% 

Answer: D. 99.73% 

Explanation: In a normal distribution, 99.73% of data points fall within three standard deviations (3 Sigma) from the mean, which is commonly referred to as the Three-Sigma rule. 

19) Which of These Is Generally Not Considered as One of the Three Classifications of Culture That Managers Should Master? 

a) National culture 

b) Project culture 

c) Functional culture 

d) Organizational culture 

Answer: B. Project culture 

Explanation: Managers typically need to master three categories of culture: national, organizational, and functional. Project culture, while important, is not generally recognized as a separate category in this context. 

20) In What Activity is a Team Involved When They Meet to Review Lessons Learned From Previous Projects? 

a) Contingency planning 

b) Risk identification 

c) Project team status meeting 

d) Identification of project scope 

Answer: B. Risk identification 

Explanation: To identify risks, the project manager meets with the project team to review lessons learned from previous projects. 

21) What Does The $8,000 Represent When Risk Event has an 80% chance of occurring, and the consequences will be $10,000? 

a) Risk value 

b) Contingency budget 

c) Project value 

d) Expected Monetary Value 

Answer: D. Expected Monetary Value 

Explanation: Compute EVM by 0.8 X $10,000 = $8,000 

22) As a Project Manager, You've Noticed Conflicts Arising In The Team During Project Execution, Both On Technical And Interpersonal Levels. What is the appropriate way to handle these conflicts? 

a) Conflicts distract the team and hamper the work rhythm. It would help if you continually smoothed them when they arrive. 

b) A conflict can be handled in a meeting so that the entire team can contribute in finding a solution. 

c) Conflicts should be addressed early, usually privately, using a direct, collaborative approach. 

d) It would help if you used your coercive power to resolve conflicts and focus on achieving goals quickly. 

Answer: C. Conflicts should be addressed early, usually privately, using a direct, collaborative approach. 

Explanation: Addressing conflicts early helps prevent escalation. A private, direct, and collaborative approach ensures efficient issue resolution, maintaining team cohesion and project focus. 

23) Who is Accountable For Identifying And Managing Risk? 

a) Project manager 

b) Project sponsor 

c) Team members 

d) Functional manager 

Answer: A. Project manager 

Explanation: The project manager is accountable for identifying and managing risk 

24) The Review Of Critical Deliverables And Project Performance After A Project Phase is Called: 

a) Phase Exit 

b) Kill Point 

c) Stage-Gate 

d) All the Above 

Answer: D. All the Above 

Explanation: A phase gate is conducted at the end of a project phase. During the phase gate, the project's performance and progress are evaluated against project and business documents, such as the project business case, project charter, project management plan, and benefits management plan. Based on this evaluation, a decision (e.g., go/no-go decision) is made to: 

1) Proceed to the next phase 

2) Proceed to the next phase with modifications 

3) Terminate the project 

4) Stay in the current phase, or 

5) Repeat the phrase or parts of it 

Different organizations, industries, or types of work may use alternate terms for phase gates, such as kill point, phase review, stage gate, and phase entrance or phase exit. 

25) Consider the Following Situation And Choose The Relevant Statement. 

Jacob is responsible for delivering a project that involves completing six components. Completing each component will take $60,000, and the deadline to complete the entire project is six weeks. Jacob delivered three components four weeks into the project and spent $290,000. 

a) The project is under budget and behind schedule 

b) The project is over budget and ahead of schedule 

c) The project is over budget and behind schedule 

d) None of the above 

Answer: C. The project is over budget and behind schedule 

Explanation: The project is under budget and behind schedule in the above scenario 

26) Sophia is a Project Manager, And She Is Currently Trying To Control A Project's Costs. Which Defines The Value of Completed Work Based On The Approved Budget Assigned To a Particular Work For a Scheduled Project?   

a) EV   

b) SV   

c) BF   

d) CV   

Answer: A. EV   

Explanation: Earned Value or EV is the value of completed work based on the assigned budget for a scheduled project or work breakdown structure.    

Schedule Variance, or SV, is the difference between earned and planned value. It measures schedule performance.    

Cost Variance (CV): The amount of budget shortfall or surplus at a given moment, expressed as the difference between earned value and actual cost.   

27) Consider that a Project Manager Is Preparing The Lessons Learned Document. Which of the Following Statements is Incorrect?   

a) Lessons learned to involve updates to the risk management planning 

b) Lessons learned in meetings concentrate only on the technical development process 

c) Lessons learned to provide information that could improve the effectiveness of future projects 

d) None of the above 

Answer: B. Lessons learned in meetings concentrate only on the technical development process 

Explanation: Lessons learned are information gathered throughout a project that demonstrates how project events were addressed and aids in addressing future events to improve project performance. The Lessons Learned Knowledge Base is a repository of historical knowledge and lessons learned from past project selection decisions and project performance. 

The subject matter of a lessons-learned meeting may vary depending on the project scope. It can concentrate on various topics, such as technological development, design plans, future enhancements, or discovered process problems. 

28) Suppose the Project Expenses Exceed The Expected Cost While Computing The Project's Baseline Cost. What is the Reason for This?  

a) Overestimated material costs 

b) Excess inventory 

c) Lack of stakeholder support 

d) Both a and b 

Answer: B. Excess inventory 

Explanation: Excess inventory occurs when the team fails to manage and control resources efficiently. It is the reason behind increased project costs. 

29) The Project and Team Evaluate and Control Project Work as Part of a Process Improvement Project for a Manufacturing Operation. During This Process, Which of The Following is Done? 

a) Obtaining acceptance of the deliverables by the customer or sponsor 

b) Drawing a comparison of project performance against the project management plan 

c) Approving or rejecting after analyzing the change requests 

d) Applying change requests to achieve the project’s objectives 

Answer: B. Drawing a comparison of project performance against the project management plan 

Explanation: During the abovementioned process, project performance is compared against the project management plan 

30) A Project Manager is now Working on a Project that Involves Developing Several Apartments and Procuring the Required Materials. The Project Manager is not Responsible for this Document:   

a) Proposals 

b) Source selection criteria   

c) Procurement statements of work 

d) Procurement documents   

Answer: A. Proposals 

Explanation: Proposals include all the required information requested in the procurement documents issued by the buyer. The seller, not the buyer, creates the proposals. 

31) A large IT Corporation is Establishing a Change Control Board to Assess all Assigned Change Requests for a Project. What is the best Composition of Members of the Change Control Board?   

a) The project initiator or project sponsor 

b) The customer, project manager and project team members 

c) The customer   

d) The project manager   

Answer: B. The customer, project manager and project team members

Explanation: The change control board reviews change requests and decides whether they should be approved. The best option is the change control board's customer, project manager, and project team members (COB).   

32) How will you Achieve Your Objective When Considering the Following Scenario?   

You must lead a product development project using an agile framework. You must also bring stakeholders and SMEs together to determine risks, project scope, and other topics.   

a) Conducting interviews with team members   

b) Scheduling a focus group   

c) Inviting the stakeholders to the daily scrum meeting   

d) None of the above   

Answer: B. Scheduling a focus group     

Explanation: You must schedule a focus group to achieve the abovementioned objective.  

33) Integrated Change Control involves all of These Tools and Techniques Except for: 

a) Project management plan updates 

b) A change control board to approve or reject changes 

c) Expert judgement 

d) Meetings 

Answer: A. Project management plan updates 

Explanation: The techniques and tools in perform integrated change control includes:

1) Expert Judgment 

2) Change Control Tools 

3) Data Analysis 

a) Alternatives analysis 

b) Cost-benefit analysis 

4) Decision Making 

a) Voting 

b) Autocratic decision making 

c) Multicriteria decision analysis 

5) Meetings 

34) All of These are true Concerning Expected Monetary Value (EMV) Except: 

a) Decision tree analysis uses net present values (NPV) more effectively in its calculations than EMV. 

b) The EMV of an opportunity is usually a positive value.  

c) The EMV of a threat is usually a negative value.  

d) EMV is a statistical idea that calculates the mean value of a future scenario that may or may not occur by multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the possibility of it occurring and summing the products. 

Answer: A. Decision tree analysis uses net present values (NPV) more effectively in its calculations than EMV. 

Explanation: The formula for finding the values of the chance and decision nodes are as follows: The value of each chance node is calculated by multiplying the values of the uncertain options by their probabilities of happening and summing the results. This value is known as the Expected Monetary Value (EMV).   

35) A Project is Considered Complete When the:   

a) BAC is equal to the PV   

b) The EV is equal to the AC   

c) The PV is equal to the AC   

d) The BAC is equal to the EV   

Answer: D. The BAC is equal to the EV     

Explanation: Budget at Completion (BAC). The addition of all budgets established for the work to be executed. Earned value (EV) is a measure of work done expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work. It is the budget related with the authorized work that has been completed.   

36) A Project Manager Wants to Identify and Manage Specific tasks Requiring Closer Monitoring Effectively. Which Method Should the Project Manager use?  

a) The PERT method   

b) The critical path method   

c) The GERT method   

d) The PCDM method    

Answer: B. The critical path method   

Explanation: The critical path method estimates the minimum project duration and determines the level of schedule flexibility over the logical network paths within the schedule model.  

Conclusion   

Mastering the PMP Exam Questions is essential for project management professionals aiming to excel in their careers. By understanding the most frequently asked questions, candidates can prepare effectively for real-world scenarios and enhance their decision-making abilities. The 36 PMP Exam Questions discussed above provide valuable insights into key concepts and strategies, helping candidates uplift their confidence and increase their chances of passing the PMP exam.